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HISTORY
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Do you think that it was reasonable to conclude from the advance of communism in the late 1940s that communism was winning?

There are a number of arguments both for and against this. It could be argued that ‘communism was winning’ by the late 1940s due to the spread of communism in Europe and also with China becoming communist in 1949. This suddenly meant that communism was now a global presence. Also the detonation of the first Atomic bomb by the USSR gave them the upper hand in the nuclear arms race meaning that the USA no longer had a monopoly on Nuclear weapons. On the other hand the Berlin Blockade and the subsequent division of Berlin had shown that the Soviets would back down in the face of conflict and was a considerable PR defeat for Stalin. In addition to this elections in East Germany saw victories for anti communist politician Konrad Adenauer and the Christian Democratic Union. Finally the formation of NATO meant that counties in the North Atlantic suddenly had a strategy for mutual defence. This idea was copied by The Soviets with the formation of The Warsaw Pac

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David Lavelle-Scally
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